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In this video we look into the claims of Artur Koestler, I am nearly done with reading The 13th Tribe. He suggested Yiddish did not originate in the Rhineland, but that it comes from Poland (where Jews there are from Khazaria) and Jews trading with Germans there, thus learning their lingo. He points to the lack of Jewish population in Germany which would have been 'formative' for the language. I'm going even further and linking it to Germanic migrations out of Asia (Ynglings). I have always found it incredibly odd that Yiddish is basically a variety of German, yet is spoken in Eastern Europe where many Ethnic Germans and German tribes lived. I suggest a language cannot develop in 'ghettoes', which is what the Rhineland hypothesis would suggest. It can only be produced IN ITS OWN NATION! I suggest this nation is a similar origin to notions of the German lingo originating in Asia, (As-Gard). It is known the Khazars were a huge area collecting tribute from many peoples, why not far eastern Germans? What I suggest is that Germanics in Eastern Europe also adopted Jewish ideas, possibly under the Khazars. We also suggest a reason for the Khazar conversion - Jews living in the area searching for Noah's Ark! Explain why 'Yiddish' names DO NOT sound German, but DO sound German? Why so many paradoxes? Why were all the Jews over in Poland and never that many in Germany to begin with? Channel Membership ✅ / @charles_kos Patreon! ✅ / charleskos =) Many thanks indeed for supporting my research! Charles